Q. A 25-year-old female was admitted last night with a chief complaint of left flank pain. The pain has been ongoing for the past 3 months and is described as a dull ache that is exacerbated by physical activity. On admission, she was found to have hematuria and proteinuria, with no evidence of an infectious etiology. Further evaluation revealed a mild anemia and a slightly elevated creatinine. Her medical history is significant for a previous episode of deep vein thrombosis treated with anticoagulation therapy. The patient is otherwise healthy and has no known risk factors for thromboembolic disease. On physical examination, her blood pressure is 105/70 mm Hg, pulse rate 75/min, respiratory rate 20/min, and oxygen saturation is 99 percent on room air. Auscultation of her chest reveals clear lungs bilaterally, and cardiac assessment demonstrates regular rate and rhythm, with no murmurs, rubs, or gallops. Her abdomen is soft, and you detect normal bowel sounds. She is tender to palpation over the left costovertebral angle, with no masses appreciated. You order a doppler ultrasound, which shows a narrowed left renal vein with increased blood flow velocity. A subsequent CT reveals extrinsic compression of the left renal vein between the aorta and superior mesenteric artery (see image). Based on the information you have at this point in time, which of the following is LEAST likely to occur secondary to her diagnosis?