Q. A 28-year-old male presents to the primary care clinic with a one-month history of a non-painful ulcer on his genitals. He notes the lesion started as a small red bump that ulcerated within days. He has had a history of unprotected sexual practices with multiple partners in recent months. He denies any other symptoms, such as discharge, dysuria, or systemic symptoms. On physical examination, there is a solitary, round, well-demarcated ulcer on his genitals. It is non-tender with a clean, indurated base and sharply demarcated borders. There is also firm, non-tender, bilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy. Blood tests reveal a non-reactive HIV test and a normal complete blood count. However, the Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test is positive with a titer of 1:32. The confirmatory test with Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Absorption (FTA-ABS) comes back positive. Based on the findings, what is the most appropriate next step of management for this patient?