Q. A 68-year-old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting. He has a past medical history significant for hypertension, hyperlipidemia, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and gout. He also has a history of smoking for 40 years and denies any alcohol use. He reports a sudden onset of left lower abdominal pain that began this morning. He describes the pain as constant, sharp, and with moderate intensity. He also reports nausea and vomiting, but denies any fever, chills, diarrhea, or constipation. On physical examination, the patient appears uncomfortable and is guarding his left lower quadrant. Vital signs are stable, with a temperature of 37 degrees Celsius (98.6 degrees Fahrenheit), blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg, heart rate of 75/min, and a respiratory rate of 18/min. Abdominal examination reveals mild tenderness to palpation in the left lower quadrant, with voluntary guarding and a positive McBurney's sign. No rebound tenderness or peritoneal signs are noted. Digital rectal examination reveals no masses or rectal bleeding. You order a laboratory workup that includes a complete blood count and basic metabolic panel, which are within normal limits. A urinalysis is also performed and is negative for any significant abnormalities. You also order a computed tomography scan of his abdomen and pelvis (see image), which shows thickening of the sigmoid colon wall with surrounding inflammation, and no evidence of masses, obstruction, fistula formation or perforation. Based on the information you have at this point in time, which of the following statements is NOT true concerning the most likely diagnosis?