Q. A 52-year-old man presents to the clinic complaining of intermittent gross hematuria over the past six months. He reports no other urinary symptoms and denies any flank pain, fever, or weight loss history. He has no significant past medical history and is not taking any medications. Physical examination is unremarkable. A urinalysis shows 3+ blood, 0-2 red blood cells (RBCs), and no leukocytes. His serum creatinine is within normal limits. What is the next best step in management?