Q. A 65-year-old man with a history of bileaflet aortic valve prosthesis and atrial fibrillation is scheduled to undergo elective hip replacement surgery due to severe osteoarthritis. He has been on long-term warfarin therapy to prevent thromboembolic events. His recent international normalized ratio (INR) is within the therapeutic range. The surgical team is concerned about the perioperative management of anticoagulation. Which of the following statements regarding low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) bridging therapy in this patient is correct?