Q. A 65-year-old man comes to the emergency room for severe lower abdominal pain and is diagnosed with an obstructed inguinal hernia. His medical records show that he has been on regular warfarin therapy for atrial fibrillation for the past 4 years with a target INR range of 2.0 to 3.0. He is scheduled to undergo surgery and his INR is found to be 3.5. What is the most appropriate next step in his management?