Q. A 34-year-old female was admitted yesterday for severe claudication in her left calf. The pain was described as burning and persistent. A doppler ultrasound was performed in the emergency department and no evidence of deep venous thrombosis was detected. Physical examination revealed firmness and inflammation of the greater saphenous vein in her left foot. She was admitted due to concerns for vasculopathy, and a vascular surgery consultation was ordered. You review the consultation note, which includes description of arteriography, and a biopsy obtained from an affected vessel. The patient has a past medical history significant for poorly controlled hypertension and hyperlipidemia, and her most recent lipid panel showed a total cholesterol of 240 mg/dL, HDL 50 mg/dL, and her LDL was 165 mg/dL. The patient drinks 2 to 3 alcoholic beverages daily, and has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes per day form the past 20 years. On physical examination today, her blood pressure is 160/80 mm Hg, heart rate 80/min, respiratory rate 20/min, and oxygen saturation in 97 percent on room air. Auscultation of her chest demonstrates scattered ronchi in both lung fields, and is otherwise unremarkable. Her cardiac exam shows regular rate and rhythm, with no murmurs, rubs, or gallops. Her abdomen is soft, non-tender, and without organomegaly. You appreciate unequal pulses in her upper extremities, and note significant pallor in her left hand isolated to the fourth and fifth digits (see image). You review the histology report and it states “neutrophil infiltration and granulomatous formation resulting in vessel occlusion by inflammatory thrombus with relative sparing of the vessel wall.” Additionally, arteriography showed "corkscrewing" of her left posterior tibial artery representing small collateral arteries around associated occlusions. Which of the following statements regarding this patient’s most likely diagnosis is FALSE?