Q. A 24-year-old man presents to the primary care clinic complaining of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea that have persisted for the past two days, accompanied by intermittent subjective fever. He reports a frequency of three to five episodes of loose stools per day without the presence of blood or mucus but with associated abdominal cramping. He also reports that several of his colleagues have experienced similar symptoms recently. On physical examination, he exhibits tenderness in the left lower quadrant of his abdomen, although there are no signs of rebound tenderness or guarding. His mucous membranes are moist, and he remains afebrile but hemodynamically stable. Which of the following is the most effective management for this patient?