Neurology Board Prep Questions

Neurology Board Preparation > ABPN Neurology Preparatory Questions > Neurology Board Prep Questions

Q. A 62 year-old man with a past medical history of diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and prior TIA presents with a 3 day history of left lower face weakness, left upper extremity weakness greater than left lower extremity weakness, and some odd sensation on the left side of the body. You explain that you believe he has had a stroke. He wants to know why strokes occur. Which of the following statements is most accurate?

Notch3 gene mutation is the most common cause of stroke
Vasculitis is the most common cause of stroke
Non-valvular atrial fibrillation is the most prevalent cause of cardioembolic stroke
Non-valvular atrial fibrillation confers a higher risk of stroke than valvular atrial fibrillation
Cardioembolic strokes are more common in younger individuals than older individuals
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