Q. A 53-year-old man is brought to the ER because of a sudden onset severe headache with nausea and vomiting that started 30 minutes ago. He was running in the park when he suddenly developed his symptoms. The headache radiates to his neck. He has hypertension which is treated with losartan. He had smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for the past 35 years. His temperature is 37.6 °C , HR is 90 beats/ minutes, BP is 145/90, and RR is 19 breaths/minutes. The patient is stuporous without focal neurological deficit. Kernig sign is positive. In the CT scanner the patient suffers from a single generalized tonic-clonic seizure, which resolves within 3 minutes with the administration of lorazepam 2 mg IV. CT scan of the head is shown below. Which of the following is the most appropriate statement regarding management of seizures post aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage.